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The question

Does a divorce that occurred under duress take effect, even though the plaintiff told the judge that he had not consummated the marriage with his wife, despite having done so, and is it permissible for them to reconcile without a new marriage contract?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If your divorce of your wife was merely due to moral pressure, then it is valid. However, if the matter reached the point of coercion, then it is not valid. Assuming the divorce did not occur, and if you had consummated the marriage with her, then you have the right to take her back without a new contract. You should try to convince your family to agree to her return. If they do not agree, then it is obligatory for you to obey your parents, unless you fear falling into temptation yourself. You have erred in two matters: your consummation of the marriage with your wife without her family's knowledge, and your lie to the judge about not having consummated the marriage with her. You must repent and give your wife her rights.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
139322
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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