Does a man marrying another woman constitute a violation of a verbal agreement not to marry another, thereby permitting the wife to seek divorce? And by doing so, would she fall under the Hadith: "Any woman who asks her husband for a divorce without any strong reason, the scent of Paradise will be forbidden to her"?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The conditions considered valid in marriage are those stipulated in the contract or prior to it. If a woman stipulates to the suitor that he must not marry another woman, he is obligated to fulfill this condition, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "Muslims are bound by their conditions, except for a condition that forbids what is lawful or permits what is unlawful." If the husband does not fulfill the condition, the wife has the right to annul the marriage.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/5665
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 5665
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy