Does the husband's saying to his wife, "I have annulled the contract between us," intending the agreement to live together and not the marriage contract, constitute an annulment of the marriage?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
This phrase is a metaphorical expression for divorce (kinayah), so divorce does not occur by it unless the husband intends it. The reference for his intention is his own statement, as he knows it best. So, if the husband says that he did not intend divorce, it does not occur.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/168930
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 168930
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy