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The question

How was a legitimate marriage contract concluded for a woman who is still married to another man, given that she obtained a civil divorce in a non-Islamic country, and was not divorced Islamically, with official documents proving this?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is not permissible to seek judgment from man-made laws unless there is a necessity. A divorce issued by man-made courts is not considered valid. If your son has not divorced his wife, she is still under his marital bond. Her marriage to another man is void and must be annulled. Anyone who initiated or assisted in this marriage, knowing that the woman was already married, has committed a grave sin. Both are liable to the prescribed punishment (hadd), and lineage is not established from such a union. The final decision on this matter rests with the Shar'i courts.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
132931
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy