Is a child born as a result of intercourse a month before marriage, and then the marriage took place while she was pregnant with him, considered an illegitimate child (ibn haram)? What is his ruling? Is it permissible to abort him when he is one month old?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If intercourse occurs after the marriage contract but before the announced consummation (dukhool), the child is attributed to the father. However, if intercourse occurs before the marriage contract, it is considered fornication (zina), and the child is attributed to the mother, inheriting from her and she from him. Abortion is not permissible in this case. There is a disagreement among scholars regarding the attribution of the child to his father if he marries the woman with whom he committed fornication.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/37322
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 37322
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy