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The question

Is a girl considered sinful if she refuses intercourse with her husband after the marriage contract, but before consummation and lawful seclusion, for fear of not accepting it?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a valid Islamic marriage contract is concluded, the woman becomes a wife whom her husband is permitted to engage in marital relations with. However, it is customary not to consummate the marriage until she is escorted to him, and this custom should be respected. If the dowry has been paid in full, he has the right to consummate the marriage whenever he wishes. If he desires to enjoy her company at her family's home before the marital home is prepared, there is no impediment if her father permits it. If the father does not permit it, she incurs no sin by refraining until the consummation takes place.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
102230
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy