Is her first marriage invalid because it was concluded with a sheikh's contract without official registration in court, and are her second marriage and pregnancy forbidden due to the 'iddah (waiting period) not being completed?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the first marriage was valid and met its conditions, then the second marriage is void because it occurred during the (waiting period). However, if the first marriage was invalid because it did not meet its conditions, then the second marriage is also void because it occurred before the expiry of the iddah from the first marriage. The pregnancy is not considered zina (fornication/adultery) in either case, as long as you were unaware of its prohibition. You must repent to Allah and increase your good deeds.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/54762
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 54762
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy