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The question

Is it forbidden for a wife to allow her husband intimacy after the Sharia marriage contract but before the documented civil contract, if the civil contract is the only one recognized for proving marriage and the paternity of children in her country?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

A man gains possession of a woman through a contract that fulfills all conditions and pillars. It is recommended to observe the prevailing custom of registering marriage contracts to safeguard rights and lineage, especially with the existence of laws that mandate it. did not stipulate that the contract must be conducted by a judge or a scholar; rather, an oral offer and acceptance in the presence of two witnesses are sufficient. The Companions did not write down dowries to expedite the payment of the dower. However, the need to write contracts emerged when people began to marry with deferred dowries.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
90479
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy