Back to search
The question

Is it necessary for the fiancée to verbally authorize her guardian to complete the marriage contract, or is it permissible for the guardian to conclude the contract without such authorization?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

For a marriage contract to be valid, it must be performed by the woman's guardian (wali) after obtaining her permission and consent, based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) sayings: "There is no marriage except with a guardian," and "Any woman who marries without the permission of her guardian, her marriage is invalid." A woman cannot عقد (perform the contract) for herself, nor can she delegate someone to do so. The most preponderant opinion is that a father is not permitted to force his daughter to marry someone she does not desire, and in such a case, the contract would be فاسد (corrupt/invalid).

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
5148
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy