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The question

Is it permissible for a man to divorce his wife and then remarry her in order to correct official documents in a country that prohibits polygamy, especially if he is threatened with imprisonment and has no intention of actual divorce?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If you can maneuver to obtain the contract without a divorce, then do so, such as by drafting a new contract that does not mention your previous marriage. If divorce is necessary but only occurs in writing without verbal utterance, it does not constitute a divorce as long as you do not intend it. However, if verbal utterance of divorce becomes necessary, you can reconcile with your wife through words or intercourse. It is imperative to strive to reside in Muslim lands, and if you are compelled to travel to non-Muslim lands, you must be wary of temptations and adhere firmly to your religion.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
110104
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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