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The question

Is it permissible for a Muslim man to marry a girl whose divorce decree has not yet been issued by the court, especially since she was forced into her first marriage?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a man divorces his wife and her waiting period (') expires, she is then permitted to marry someone else. The waiting period begins from the date the divorce is issued. Merely signing a divorce paper does not constitute a divorce unless it is accompanied by the husband's intention to divorce. A guardian is not permitted to force a woman to marry someone she does not desire.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
139518
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy