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The question

Is it permissible for a wife to seek divorce due to her husband's sexual incapacity, and is she entitled to receive her full deferred dower, maintenance, and the list of movable assets?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the husband is totally impotent and has not consummated the marriage with his wife, and the wife was unaware of his impotence before the marriage contract and does not consent to it after becoming aware, then she has the right to annul the marriage. She is entitled to the full mahr if he had secluded himself with her. However, if the impotence occurred after the marriage, or if the woman consented to it, she does not have the right to annul the marriage, but she can request a divorce or khul'.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
160808
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy