Is it permissible for a wife to seek divorce due to her husband's sexual incapacity, and is she entitled to receive her full deferred dower, maintenance, and the list of movable assets?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband is totally impotent and has not consummated the marriage with his wife, and the wife was unaware of his impotence before the marriage contract and does not consent to it after becoming aware, then she has the right to annul the marriage. She is entitled to the full mahr if he had secluded himself with her. However, if the impotence occurred after the marriage, or if the woman consented to it, she does not have the right to annul the marriage, but she can request a divorce or khul'.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/160808
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 160808
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy