Is it permissible for both parties to marry by agreeing not to engage in sexual relations due to an illness afflicting one of them?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Marriage without intercourse does not affect the 'ismah (infallibility). If the condition of no intercourse is stipulated in the contract, it has two scenarios:
1. If there is no impediment to intercourse: The marriage is valid if the condition was made by the husband, and invalid if it was made by the wife. Scholars have differed on this matter. 2. If there is an impediment to intercourse (such as illness or inability): The contract is valid and this condition does not harm it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/77986
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 77986
- Imported
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