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The question

Is the aforementioned marriage legitimate, and does it entail the necessity of an Islamic divorce?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The aforementioned marriage is void due to the incompleteness of the required number of witnesses, as the majority of scholars stipulated the testimony of two just men, and a woman's testimony is not valid for marriage. If no one attended it except your sister and her husband, then it is void, and the full dowry is obligatory because of the legitimate seclusion that occurred, and the husband must pay it. The dowry of equivalence (Mahr al-Mithl) is obligatory even if it was not specified in the contract. The divorce is valid and binding, and by it, you become unlawful to him, and the non-documentation of it by the courts has no bearing.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
92763
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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