Is the daughter considered an illegitimate child if the first marriage contract was conducted in a US municipality out of ignorance, and the second contract was later conducted in a mosque, and is expiation required in this case?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The validity of marriage hinges on the fulfillment of its pillars and conditions, not on the place where the contract is concluded. If a husband enters into marriage with his wife, believing the contract to be valid, then the daughter born from this marriage is attributed to him by lineage and is not considered a child of fornication, even if the contract was فاسد (irregular or invalid), by agreement of the Muslims.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/127910
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 127910
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy