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The question

Is the daughter considered an illegitimate child if the first marriage contract was conducted in a US municipality out of ignorance, and the second contract was later conducted in a mosque, and is expiation required in this case?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The validity of marriage hinges on the fulfillment of its pillars and conditions, not on the place where the contract is concluded. If a husband enters into marriage with his wife, believing the contract to be valid, then the daughter born from this marriage is attributed to him by lineage and is not considered a child of fornication, even if the contract was فاسد (irregular or invalid), by agreement of the Muslims.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
127910
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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