Is the marriage considered void if the contract was made with the word "virgin" and the girl is not, with the groom's knowledge, and is their cohabitation considered adultery throughout their lives, and if it is void, what is the solution?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Whoever commits indecency before the marriage contract has committed a grave sin, and they must repent. According to the majority of scholars, it is not permissible for them to marry until after repentance and purification (Istibra'). However, some scholars do not stipulate repentance for the validity of the marriage, and their view is acceptable. The statement of the marriage officiant that the wife is a virgin does not invalidate the contract, and the contract is valid as long as it has fulfilled its conditions and pillars.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/154962
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 154962
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy