Is the marriage contract referred to as an "aqd qiran" (bond of union), or is this designation incorrect?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The term mentioned means that the marriage contract has taken place without the wedding and consummation, and there is no harm in using it. A -compliant contract that fulfills its pillars and conditions is considered valid. With it, the woman owns half of the Mahr (dowry), inherits from her husband, becomes a to his children, and it becomes permissible for the man to immediately engage in marital relations with his wife. However, the husband should respect the customs of some societies that prefer delaying consummation until the wedding ceremonies are complete.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 100282
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