Is the marriage contract valid after committing sins such as illicit seclusion, exchanging kisses, and zina (unlawful sexual intercourse) without penetration prior to the contract, given that one was unaware of the necessity of repentance before the contract, followed by remorse and seeking forgiveness afterward? And what must be done now?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
As long as the marriage contract was concluded with offer and acceptance between the guardian and the husband, and in the presence of two witnesses, then the contract is valid. What occurred before the contract of unlawful acts that did not reach adultery does not affect the validity of the contract, and they both must repent to Allah.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/187168
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 187168
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy