Is the marriage contract valid if entered into with the intention of divorce, without informing the wife or her guardian, and the man only informed his older brother? And is the marriage contract valid if the woman intends to seek Khul' (divorce at the wife's instance, usually with compensation) after marriage, knowing that there are legitimate reasons that permit her to do so?

The marriage is valid if the husband intends to divorce after a period, and his intention does not invalidate it according to the majority of scholars. However, Al-Awza'i considers it a temporary marriage (mut'ah), but the correct view is that there is no harm in it, and his intention does not affect its validity. It is even more appropriate that the contract is not invalidated if the wife intends to seek divorce (khul') from her husband afterwards, because divorce is in the hands of the husband. However, it is forbidden to seek khul' without a legitimate reason, as the Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "The women who seek khul' are the hypocrites."