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The question

Is the new marriage contract void and the wife permissible for the questioner, given that he divorced her three consecutive times in one go, even though he was unaware of the Shariah ruling?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a husband repeats the word of divorce for emphasis, and does not intend to effect more than one divorce, then it is counted as a single divorce. However, if he intends to effect more than one divorce, then all of them take effect according to the majority of scholars. If he has no specific intention, the ruling differs according to the phrasing. For example, the statement: "You are divorced, divorced, divorced" effects a single divorce, whereas the statement: "You are divorced, you are divorced, you are divorced" effects three divorces. If the husband's intention is not clear, then the apparent meaning is to consider the repetition. Some scholars hold that consecutive divorces without a new marriage contract or return (to the wife) are counted as a single divorce, regardless of the husband's intention. Due to the detail and disagreement surrounding this issue, it is advisable to present it to a court or trusted scholars.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
149074
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy