Is the oral condition agreed upon before the marriage contract, which stipulates that the wife give her husband a certain amount from her salary monthly, binding upon the wife despite not being included in the marriage contract?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The wife is not obliged to give her husband a sum of money he stipulated from her, because she has the right to retract it. The husband has the right to prevent his wife from working unless she stipulated that in the marriage contract, and he may permit her to work in exchange for a sum of money. It is better for a woman to remain in her home and care for her children. If she needs to work, she must observe the Islamic legal guidelines.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/115190
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 115190
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy