Is the waiting period (iddah) incumbent upon the wife if a lawful seclusion takes place between the spouses after the marriage contract, but consummation does not occur therein, and a divorce takes place the following day?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If you were alone with your wife in a seclusion where intercourse was possible, then the (waiting period) becomes obligatory upon her, and she is entitled to the full mahr (bridal-money). The presence of a sleeping child does not negate the seclusion; rather, seclusion is negated by the presence of a discerning person.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 174921
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