Is the waiting period (iddah) incumbent upon the wife if a lawful seclusion takes place between the spouses after the marriage contract, but consummation does not occur therein, and a divorce takes place the following day?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If you were alone with your wife in a seclusion where intercourse was possible, then the (waiting period) becomes obligatory upon her, and she is entitled to the full mahr (bridal-money). The presence of a sleeping child does not negate the seclusion; rather, seclusion is negated by the presence of a discerning person.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/174921
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 174921
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy