Is the wife sinful for refusing to allow her husband to engage in intercourse or thigh-intercourse before the wedding, and is she considered blameworthy if that leads to the husband resorting to masturbation or illicit acts, and is she obligated to obey him in that regard?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the husband resorts to the unlawful due to his wife's refusal to obey him in intercourse, then she bears no sin. And the wife's obedience is to her father, not to her husband, if he has not consummated the marriage with her and she is still in her parents' home.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- Original fatwa ID
- 115154
- Imported
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