Is there an 'iddah for a woman who has been divorced after the marriage contract, but before consummation, if there was a khalwah (private meeting) but no intercourse occurred?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The legitimate seclusion (al- al-shar'iyya) with the contracted wife, in which sexual intercourse is customarily possible, and during which the wife did not prevent her husband, is considered, according to the Hanafis, Malikis, and Hanbalis, as equivalent to consummation (ad-dukhūl) in making the full Mahr obligatory, even if they both agree that intercourse did not take place. Their proof is the consensus of the Companions that whoever locks a door or draws a curtain has made the Mahr obligatory and the ' (waiting period) incumbent, and because the delivery due from her side has been realized.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 41378
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- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy