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The question

What is the jurisprudential ruling on anal intercourse with one's wife (with whom the marriage contract has been concluded), and is this considered a valid consummation that entails the dowry and legal consequences?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The Hanbali school of thought—the one considered authoritative—holds that seclusion with the wife after a valid marriage contract takes the ruling of consummation, even if intercourse has not occurred. Thus, the full mahr becomes due, and the (waiting period) becomes obligatory. This is the view of the Rightly Guided Caliphs, Zayd, Ibn Umar, and others. It is also one of the two earlier opinions of Al-Shafi'i.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
182750
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy