Does the first wife have the right to demand a trip similar to the husband's trip for the second wife to another country due to the impossibility of bringing her over?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a man travels to one of his wives and not the other, there is no blame upon him for that. The first wife does not have the right to demand that he travel with her in like manner. However, it is her right that he be just between them in lodging if he leans towards the other. It should be known that a virgin wife is entitled to seven nights, and a previously married wife to three nights. There is no compensatory lodging for the first wife during this period, but compensatory lodging is obligatory for anything exceeding that.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/164430
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 164430
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy