Did the first and second divorces between the spouses occur based on the mentioned events, and what are the rights resulting from each divorce if it occurred?

The divorce occurred due to the wife's refusal to hand over the child, regardless of whether the husband intended to make the divorce contingent or merely to threaten. The rajʿah (revocation of divorce) occurred with his statement: "I have returned her to my wedlock." As for the divorce about which the husband doubts whether he uttered it, it does not take effect, because divorce does not occur by mere intention or with doubt. The original state is the continuation of the marriage, and his informing [others] of the occurrence of this divorce due to his assumption that it occurred does not result in divorce.