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The question

What is the ruling on conditioning a wife's divorce upon her ceasing work for one year, given the husband's rights are being forfeited due to her continued employment despite the aforementioned need being absent?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The question is vague. What is understood from it is that the husband made his wife's divorce conditional on her not leaving her job for a certain period.

If the wife leaves her job for that period, the divorce does not occur.

If she does not leave her job, the majority of scholars believe that the divorce takes place. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah holds that if the husband did not intend for the divorce to occur by the condition, but rather intended emphasis or threat, then the divorce does not occur, but he is obliged to pay an expiation for breaking an oath (kaffarat ).

The wife must obey her husband in what is right. It is his right that she does not go out to work without his permission, unless she stipulated that in the marriage contract.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
146153
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy