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The question

Is it sufficient for the meat to be lawful (halal) that the butcher shops in foreign countries are owned by Arabs and have "halal meat" written on them, or does Abu Darda's saying apply to them: "Eat, for ease is for you and the burden is upon them"?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the meat vendors are Muslims, then it is necessary to ascertain from them the method of lawful slaughter. If the slaughterer is a Muslim or a person of the Book (Christian or Jew) and slaughters in a lawful manner, then it is permissible to eat from it, unless the contrary becomes apparent. However, if the slaughterer is not a Muslim or a person of the Book, or if the method of slaughter is unlawful, such as stunning or strangulation, then it is obligatory to abstain from eating such meat.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
69994
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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