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The question

What is meant by the statement of Ibn Qudamah: "He whose Hajj is corrupted is not obligated to make up the corrupted one; rather, he is commanded to perform a Hajj free from corruption"?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If a pilgrim has intercourse with his wife before the first tahallul (partial desacralization), his pilgrimage becomes void, and he is obligated to continue and complete it. He must also make it up in the following year, along with sacrificing a badana (camel or cow) to be distributed among the poor of the . This invalidated pilgrimage does not suffice him and does not relieve him of the obligatory duty. The correct view is that the religious command entails sufficiency, and this is the opinion of the majority of scholars. Some have dissented, arguing that the invalidated pilgrimage is commanded to be continued but is not sufficient. A refutation to them is that the dispute concerns a sound pilgrimage free from invalidating factors, and that the command to complete the invalidated pilgrimage is for exiting the state of (ritual consecration), not for its sufficiency. For sufficiency is conditional upon performing the act of worship in the manner deemed acceptable by Islamic law.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
23781
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy