Is anything required of someone who intended to perform 'Umrah at the beginning of Ramadan, then changed his mind and traveled to Jeddah, then intended to perform 'Umrah again from Jeddah, entered into a state of Ihram from his home there, and proceeded to Makkah?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If you pass the without the intention of performing ', you are not required to enter into a state of from it. This is based on the statement of Ibn 'Abbas (may Allah be pleased with him): "They [the Mawaqit] are for them [the people of those places] and for those who come upon them from other than their people, among those who intend Hajj or 'Umrah." Therefore, your entering into ihram from Jeddah is valid, because you formed the intention for 'Umrah from there.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/36571
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 36571
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy