Does zakat continue to apply to the full value of shares intended for speculation, even if the speculation has ceased and the shares have remained in their original state without profits since 2008, or is zakat only due on distributed profits?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
Your not trading shares while awaiting profit does not matter as long as the intention to trade exists. Thus, the shares are valued on the day the year passes, and their is paid according to their value.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/131776
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- 131776
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