Is Zakat obligatory on an inherited piece of land that has been left for three years, with the intention of selling it in the future, and has not yet been divided among the heirs (the wife, two sons, and one daughter), who have no other sources of income except for the wife? And if it is obligatory, should it be sold to pay the Zakat, or should it be left until the sons reach the age of marriage, and then Zakat be paid for the past years?

Zakat (definition) is not obligatory on inherited land that has come into the ownership of the heirs, even if they intend it for trade. This is because, according to the majority of scholars, one of the conditions for zakat to be obligatory on trade goods is that the person acquires ownership through a contract of exchange, or it comes into their possession by their choice. Inheritance, however, enters the ownership of the heir by compulsion. This is the view of the majority and the one that is issued as fatwa (definition).