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The question

Does my ownership of a room in my grandfather's house, despite not living there and having my belongings in it, count as an injustice to the other heirs? And what is required of me to do?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The room is owned by the heirs, and their silence regarding its utilization may signify their consent for your continued stay, based on the jurisprudential maxim: "Silence in the context of need is an articulation." However, if you know that they are refraining [from asking you to leave] out of shyness towards you, or if they wish for you to vacate, then you must vacate it for them. This is because what is taken by the 'sword of shyness' is not permissible, as it is akin to coercion. Furthermore, consuming a gift presented in this manner has been prohibited.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
188417
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy