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The question

Is it permissible for a husband to take from his wife's money, which she inherited from her deceased mother, while the husband knows that there are other heirs to the deceased, but according to the country's law, they are not entitled to anything?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

It is permissible for the guardian of an interdicted person to sell the latter's property if it is in his best interest, and the price must be preserved for him and managed as a trust. The property of the insane person remains his until his death, at which point it is divided among the heirs. A wife's disposition of her mother's property and her appropriation of it is an unlawful aggression, and it is not permissible to accept this money. The children of a daughter who died before her mother do not inherit from their grandmother. The law does not permit what the has forbidden. Matters of inheritance are serious and complex, and it is not sufficient to rely solely on a ; rather, they must be referred to the Sharia courts for investigation and to safeguard the rights of all heirs, creditors, and legatees.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
80427
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy