Is the husband's statement to his wife: "You are forbidden to me forever if you do such and such" considered a divorce if the wife does the mentioned act, knowing that she is pregnant?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Scholars have differed regarding an oath to prohibit one's wife. The we adhere to is that whatever the husband intended by it comes into effect. If he intended divorce, his divorce occurs upon the fulfillment of what he swore by, and he may take his wife back before the expiry of her ' if he has not completed three divorces. If he intended ẓihār, then he must observe its expiation, as mentioned in the Qur'an, before touching his wife. If he intended it as an oath or did not intend anything specific, then he must offer the expiation for an oath.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/140344
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 140344
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- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy