Would he be sinful, whoever signed as a witness a waiver without the presence of the second party, and stipulated to the owner of the waiver that if he were summoned to court, he would testify that he signed without the presence of the second party?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The questioner erred in his action, for testimony is not permissible except with personal knowledge and observation, as Allah Almighty says: "And do not pursue that of which you have no knowledge," and His saying: "But only those who testify to the truth knowingly." Therefore, fingerprinting alone is not sufficient without the presence of the other party and personal observation of the event. He must correct his testimony or destroy it.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/194946
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 194946
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy