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The question

Would he be sinful, whoever signed as a witness a waiver without the presence of the second party, and stipulated to the owner of the waiver that if he were summoned to court, he would testify that he signed without the presence of the second party?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The questioner erred in his action, for testimony is not permissible except with personal knowledge and observation, as Allah Almighty says: "And do not pursue that of which you have no knowledge," and His saying: "But only those who testify to the truth knowingly." Therefore, fingerprinting alone is not sufficient without the presence of the other party and personal observation of the event. He must correct his testimony or destroy it.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
194946
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy