How can the Almighty's saying, "And no bearer of burdens will bear the burden of another," be reconciled with the hadith, "The deceased is tormented by what is wailed over him"?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
There is no contradiction between the verse and the ; the meaning of the noble verse is clear, and the noble hadith is interpreted as referring to someone who instructed their family to weep over them. Aisha, may Allah be pleased with her, used the verse as evidence to refute those who said that the deceased is tormented by the weeping of their family. The scholars of the Ummah do not see a contradiction between the verse and the hadith, for the hadith is interpreted as applying when the wailing was by the will or custom of the deceased.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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