Does the first divorce pronouncement, uttered in a moment of extreme anger, count, considering you had intercourse with your wife shortly before it, and that intercourse resulted in a pregnancy, and two other divorce pronouncements occurred between you later?

The majority of scholars hold that a divorce pronounced during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred is a valid divorce, despite its being impermissible. Intercourse with the wife prior to the divorce does not prevent its occurrence. However, if the anger reached a level where comprehension was lost, such that the person did not understand what he was saying, then the divorce is not valid. But if comprehension was not lost, then the divorce is valid. It is advised to present the matter to a Sharia (definition) court or to trustworthy scholars.