Does a divorce that occurred days after sexual intercourse, which was directly followed by menstruation and then purity, take effect?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If a divorce occurs during a period of purity (tahr) in which the husband has not had intercourse with his wife, then this divorce is valid by consensus (ijma').
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/136949
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 136949
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
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