Does a verbal divorce issued with the words "she is divorced, divorced" take effect after the three separate divorces that were legally documented as an irrevocable divorce (baynunah kubra), based on the belief that the utterance has no value after the irrevocable divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The divorce that occurs during menstruation or a period of purity in which intercourse took place is considered valid, and this is the held by the majority of scholars. Accordingly, the wife has been divorced from her husband, and there is no returning after the divorce has occurred.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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