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The question

Does divorce occur upon saying "You are divorced, divorced" to a wife who is pure and has not yet menstruated days after intercourse, and if it does occur, how many divorces are considered to have taken place?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The majority of scholars hold that divorce during menstruation or during a period of purity in which sexual intercourse occurred is valid, despite its being an innovation (bid'ah). Therefore, your divorce has occurred.

As for whether one or two divorces have occurred, this depends on your intention regarding the repetition: If you intended two divorces, then according to the majority of scholars, two have occurred. If you intended one divorce and repeated it for emphasis, or if you did not intend anything specific, then it is one, unless you intended to issue multiple divorces.

If this divorce does not complete the three (talaqs), then you may take your wife back before her ' (waiting period) expires.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
145319
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy