Does divorce take place if it occurs during a period of purity in which the husband had intercourse with his wife?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The majority of scholars — and this is the issued — are of the opinion that divorce pronounced during menstruation or during a period of purity in which intercourse occurred is valid despite its prohibition. However, Sheikh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah held the view that such a divorce is an innovated (bid'i) divorce and does not take effect. Accordingly, the wife has become irrevocably separated from her husband with the three divorces, and there is no way for him to return to her unless she marries another man willingly, and then the new husband divorces her after consummation or dies, and her waiting period expires.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/135694
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 135694
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy