Does the divorce that occurred three years ago count, given that the woman was not certain of her state (menstruating or not) at the time of the divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the spouses are certain that a divorce has occurred, then it is effective. Even if it occurred during menstruation, it is effective according to the majority of scholars. The occurrence of divorce does not depend on its registration with a judge. If the husband doubts the occurrence of divorce, then nothing is incumbent upon him, because the original state is the continuation of the marital bond. However, the Sharia judiciary remains the final authority on the matter.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/95623
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 95623
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy