What is the reason for the difference between the wording of the displayed question and the wording of the original question posed by the enquirer in consultation number 2332012?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The salary is permissible if the office agrees to it after being informed of the true situation, because the wage becomes due as soon as the hirer is enabled to benefit from the services, and the employee is ready to work without refusal, whether work is available or not. Thus, a private employee is entitled to the wage by making himself available during the period, even if he does not perform work.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/123023
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 123023
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
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- Read the full answer on Ftawy