Is the repentance of someone who uttered polytheistic words while ignorant of their meaning, and then repented, considered valid, given that they continue to listen to songs that contain polytheistic words without uttering them?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
The majority of scholars hold the view that repentance from one sin is valid even while persisting in another. Listening to reprehensible music does not necessitate disbelief for the listener, as long as they disavow its meanings and do not affirm them, unlike uttering a word of disbelief intentionally and voluntarily.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/189879
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