Back to search
The question

What is the meaning of using the word "woman" instead of "wife" in the verse: "When the woman of 'Imran said, 'My Lord, indeed I have vowed to You what is in my womb, liberated, so accept from me. Indeed, You are the All-Hearing, the All-Knowing'"?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

There is no validity to the claim that there is a rule distinguishing between the use of the words "zawjah" (wife) and "imra'ah" (woman) in the Holy Quran to indicate righteousness or lack thereof. The verse in Al-Imran refers to Imran's wife as a righteous woman, and similarly, Prophet Ibrahim's wife, Sarah, was a righteous woman, and the Quran described her as "and his imra'ah (woman/wife)." Also, Ibn Mas'ud's righteous wife was described as "Ibn Mas'ud's imra'ah (woman/wife)." This proves that these claims are fundamentally baseless, and that the Quran was revealed in eloquent Arabic during a time when Arabs had a high proficiency in the language and were unable to challenge it.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
92022
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy