Is there a contradiction between Fatwa no. 147959 and the previous fatwas which state that divorce occurs with certain phrases (you are divorced, she is divorced, divorced, divorcée) even if the wife is not present? And does divorce occur if the husband is unmindful or if his tongue slips with the explicit word of divorce?

Explicit divorce must be attributed to the wife, such as "You are divorced" or "I divorced her." However, the word "divorced" (طالق) alone is an allusion (kinayah) by which divorce does not occur except with intention. The phrases "She is divorced" (هي طالق) or "She is divorced" (هي مطلقة) are explicit pronouncements by which divorce occurs. Scholars have differed regarding whether "divorced" (طالق) and "divorced" (مطلقة) are explicit without the need for a pronoun. It appears from the questioner's statement that he uttered the divorce out of mockery and jest.