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The question

Does a divorce take effect if the husband utters it three times without intention, and repeats it thinking his wife did not hear him, knowing that he suffers from obsessive-compulsive disorder?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

As long as you are not firm in your intention to repeat the divorce, only one divorce has occurred to your wife. This is based on the statement of Ibn Qudamah: "If he says, 'You are divorced, divorced, divorced,' and he says he intended to affirm it, it is accepted from him... And if he did not intend anything, only one divorce occurs, because he did not use a conjunction between them that would imply a distinction, thus they are not distinct." Doubts and whispers are not to be given any weight, and they must be ignored.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
161415
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy