Is it permissible for a sister who sold her share of the inheritance (a house that includes shops) to her brother in installments, to take her share of the shops' rent until all payments are settled?

The summary of the question is that ownership of the sold item transfers to the buyer upon the conclusion of the contract, even if the sold item is leased. The preponderant opinion is that if a buyer purchases a leased item, the rent belongs to him from the time of purchase, and the buyer takes the place of the seller in what the seller was entitled to as compensation for the usufruct. However, if the seller stipulates the benefit of the premises for a specific period, then the rent belongs to him during this excluded period.